The Poll Tax would have charged everyone the same tax in an area no matter what their wealth was. Where this fell down is the council would decide how much they needed to run the council for the following year, and payments would be spread equally amongst people out of work and multi millionaires. It had to be tweaked drastically before it would be acceptable to the general public, but the Government were determined to bring it in. And, they did.
Under the guise of the Council Tax The council still work out how much they need to run the council for the following year. Only now, instead of dividing the cost amongst the number of people (the poll tax) they divide the amount by the number of properties in the area. (poll tax version two).
This has enabled them to put all the properties into different bands and charge different amounts for each band. This is still not really fair (a couple of pensioners in their nineties and a state pension who inherited their home fifty years ago, in the same band as a Union Leader or BBC Director, earning hundreds of thousands a year, next door. But it is still a lot fairer than the original model).
However, what I would like to know, and I would welcome any comment on this, is Were the Conservative government going to instate the Poll Tax in its original bad format, or were they going to tweak it to make it fairer. What I do not want to see under the comments is “they were going to tweak it” or “they were not going to tweak it” as these comments on their own won’t be worth the electons they are written on. I am asking for answers with some sort of proof of your conclusions. I have searched the Net using Google and cannot find anything on this part of the subject, plenty of other information.